Thursday, October 9, 2014

Blog 3 - Can there be a subjective universality?

Taste as I see it is a means or standard for one to judge an object. In order to have good taste, one must have multiple experiences with similar objects. ‘Good’ in this case can also mean refined. If one experiences an object for the first time and thinks that it is particularly good, beautiful, etc. and then one experiences a similar object and thinks that it is better than the first, then one starts to establish a standard of taste. As one builds on the experiences of similar objects, one creates more points of reference in determining the quality of an object.

Taste of course can be broken down into smaller segments. For instance, I may like action films more than any other kind of movie. This does not mean, however, that action films are the best type of movie. What is required of an action movie in order to make it a good action movie is different than the standard with which we judge other genres of movies or even films qua films like cinematography, music, acting, etc. We can judge objects both as a representative type of object like a movie, but also in smaller categories like an action movie. Arguing about taste, therefore, needs restriction and focus in order for it to be worthy of debate.

In the Critique of Judgment, Kant argues that there are four moments to an aesthetic judgment: disinterested pleasure, purposiveness without purpose, subjective universality, and necessity. When discussing the subjective universality, Kant argues that the beautiful comes from a subjective standpoint because it is in the realm of feeling. Despite the fact that it is subjective, the claim seems to necessitate agreement from others. When we make a claim about the beautiful we have a feeling that everyone should agree with us, almost as if we are appealing to a rule or law. This state, Kant supposes, is universalizable because we are appealing to a form that exists in objects. If perhaps we were able to obtain this universal state from which we could all judge the same object, then maybe we could come to a universal determination about taste.

Arguably, however, taste cannot become universal in the sense that it will forever stay the same. As we have seen over the centuries, what each culture decides fits the standard of good taste differs tremendously. This does not mean that there is no such thing as taste, but rather that taste changes based on the subjective culture of the time. Not only has the taste of each culture changed, but also each culture remains biased to some degree. It would be wrong to try and rank cultures and say that one culture’s standard of taste is better than another, and it would also be wrong to argue that we know what culture looks like from a non-masculine-dominated perspective. As we have learned so far from the course, males, white males in particular, have dominated much of aesthetic history. An overwhelming majority of ‘good’ artists were white males, and not only that, but white males predominated the positions with which to judge art as well.

It is hard to know exactly if we are able to reach the unbiased judgment that Kant argues for. So much of what has been defined as ‘good’ comes from biased sources. For instance, wealth plays an important role in determining taste. People will often select the more expensive item and call it good because they know that they are supposed to because it is more expensive. I do not think this means that there is no way to distinguish between better objects of the same kind, but it certainly becomes harder when things like wealth, status, race, and gender have so greatly influenced the terms we use to distinguish between good and bad objects.


When discussing Hume’s understanding of taste in class we asked the question, “why might there be a standard of taste?” The answer was that Homer has lasted over the centuries, but many other poets have fallen by the waste side. Certainly there are elements of Homer that make his work stand out, but that does not mean that the influences of his culture and every subsequent culture make it so that we understand Homeric poetry as ‘good’ poetry. There may have been several poets that wrote great poetry but we do not know it because women wrote it or because the people at the time did not find it to be of any worth.

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